At first, I agreed with you. However, I re-read the language and changed my mind. The physician is just asking the question. It is up to the woman answering the question to determine whether or not she's been coerced. The bill doesn't define coercion, so it leaves it open to the woman's interpretation. There isn't a medical procedure (other than abortion) that doesn't require a doctor to fully describe the procedure to be done with any and every possible outcome and for the patient to sign off that this explanation was given. Why should abortion not have similar requirements? Since abortion has been documented to be a procedure in which coercion is a problem, why should that not be one of the elements of a pre-procedure process? From what I read of the bill, it doesn't require the procedure to not be performed in such an instance. The woman still has the right to have the abortion if she chooses. It just provides a listing of her rights in such a situation. Why wouldn't we want people to know what their rights are?